Saturday 29 March 2014

ccna2 chapter 4 What type of IPv6 address is required as a minimum on IPv6 enabled interfaces?

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Routing and Switching is a certification program for entry-level network engineers that helps maximize your investment in foundational networking knowledge and increase the value of your employer's network. CCNA Routing and Switching is for Network Specialists, Network Administrators, and Network Support Engineers with 1-3 years of experience. The CCNA Routing and Switching validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks

1
What type of IPv6 address is required as a minimum on IPv6 enabled interfaces?
static
global unicast
link-local*
loopback
unique local
2
In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)
default gateway*
hostname
DNS server address
DHCP server address
IP address*
subnet mask*
3
What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
MAC addresses
Layer 1 statuses*
IP addresses*
next-hop addresses
interface descriptions
speed and duplex settings
4

CCNA2 chapter 3 A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​ (Choose two.)

 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Routing and Switching is a certification program for entry-level network engineers that helps maximize your investment in foundational networking knowledge and increase the value of your employer's network. CCNA Routing and Switching is for Network Specialists, Network Administrators, and Network Support Engineers with 1-3 years of experience. The CCNA Routing and Switching validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks

1
A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​ (Choose two.)
between two switches that share a common VLAN
between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC*
between a switch and a client PC
between a switch and a network printer
between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs*
2
What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?
The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.
The port creates the VLAN again.
The port goes back to the default VLAN.
The port becomes inactive.*
3

Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?
Configure all unused ports to a ‘black-hole’ VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.
Disable autonegotiation and set ports to either static access or static trunk.
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs and to a VLAN number that is not VLAN 1.
All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.*
4
Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?
no switchport access vlan 20
delete flash:vlan.dat
no vlan 20*
delete vlan.dat
5
A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?
Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.
Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.
Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.*
Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.
6
What is the effect of issuing a switchport access vlan 20 command on the Fa0/18 port of a switch that does not have this VLAN in the VLAN database?
VLAN 20 will be created automatically.*
The command will have no effect on the switch.
Port Fa0/18 will be shut down.
An error stating that VLAN 20 does not exist will be displayed and VLAN 20 is not created.
7

CCNA 1 Final Exam What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Routing and Switching is a certification program for entry-level network engineers that helps maximize your investment in foundational networking knowledge and increase the value of your employer's network. CCNA Routing and Switching is for Network Specialists, Network Administrators, and Network Support Engineers with 1-3 years of experience. The CCNA Routing and Switching validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks

 1 Refer to the exhibit.


The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

192.168.9.254
192.168.10.1
192.168.10.2
192.168.11.254
192.168.11.252

2 Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

3 What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes
to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions

4 A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
the TCP/IP stack on a network host
connectivity between two PCs on the same network

5 What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
It initiates an ARP request.
It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.
It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

6 What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

It places information in the frame that allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.
It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

7
On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

VLAN 1
console 0
vty 0
FastEthernet0/1

8
A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
the type of traffic that is crossing the network
the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing

9
When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

service password-encryption
login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
exec-timeout 30

10
Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.
FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS​.
ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.
NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores other system files.

11
Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

custom adapter
wireless bridge
media
wireless NIC
crossover cable
wireless client software

12 Launch PT - Hide and Save PT


Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.

The Server0 message is .​ ”   winner   ”

ccna2 chapter 2 Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)


Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Routing and Switching is a certification program for entry-level network engineers that helps maximize your investment in foundational networking knowledge and increase the value of your employer's network. CCNA Routing and Switching is for Network Specialists, Network Administrators, and Network Support Engineers with 1-3 years of experience. The CCNA Routing and Switching validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks

1
Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)
writing a security policy document for protecting networks
controlling physical access to user devices
revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic*
simulating attacks against the production network to determine any existing vulnerabilities*
educating employees about social engineering attacks


Which type of cable does a network administrator need to connect a PC to a switch to recover it after the Cisco IOS software fails to load?
a coaxial cable
a crossover cable
a straight-through cable
a console cable*

 3

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?
Reconfigure the RSA key.
Configure SSH on a different line.
Use SSH version 1.
Modify the transport input command.*
4
While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a switch port status LED is alternating between green and amber. What could this LED indicate?
A PC is using the wrong cable to connect to the port.
The port has an active link with normal traffic activity.
The port is administratively down.
The port has no link.
The port is experiencing errors.*

5

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Fill in the blank.
Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1? “ ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0
The ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0 command is missing on interface vlan 99, the management VLAN.​
6
Which three statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)
Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.*
Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.
Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.
Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.*
Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.
Performance is improved because the collision detect function is disabled on the device.*
7
In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?​
CAM table overflow
DHCP starvation*
MAC address flooding
DHCP snooping
8
Which protocol or service sends broadcasts containing the Cisco IOS software version of the sending device, and the packets of which can be captured by malicious hosts on the network?
DNS
CDP*
DHCP
SSH
9
Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.*
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.*
10
The network administrator enters the following commands on a Cisco switch:
Switch(config)# interface vlan1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
What is the effect of entering these commands?
The address of the default gateway for this LAN is 192.168.1.2/24.
Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet are able to ping the switch at IP address 192.168.1.2.*
All devices attached to this switch must be in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet to communicate.
The switch is able to forward frames to remote networks.
11

Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?
No one is allowed to disconnect the IP phone or the PC and connect some other wired device.
If a different device is connected, port Fa0/2 is shut down.
The switch should automatically detect the MAC address of the IP phone and the PC and add those addresses to the running configuration.
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky********
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
12

Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?
A notification is sent.
The interface will go into error-disabled state.
A syslog message is logged.
Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.*
13
Which method would mitigate a MAC address flooding attack?
using ACLs to filter broadcast traffic on the switch​
increasing the speed of switch ports
increasing the size of the CAM table
configuring port security*
14

Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?
The interface might be configured as half-duplex.
The bandwidth parameter on the interface might be too high.
There could be too much electrical interference and noise on the link.*
The cable attaching the host to port Fa0/1 might be too long.
There could be an issue with a faulty NIC.
15
Fill in the blank.
Full-duplex” communication allows both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.
Full-duplex communication improves the performance of a switched LAN, increasing effective bandwidth by allowing both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.
16
Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?
VLAN 1*
VLAN 99
Fa0/0
Fa0/1
interface connected to the default gateway
17
Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?
Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.
Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.
Clear the MAC address table on the switch.
Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.*
18

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?
The port has been shut down.
The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security.
The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.*
The port has two attached devices.
19

Place the options in the following order:
step 3
- not scored -
step 1
step 4
step 2
step 5
step 6
20 
A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.*
The boot process was interrupted.
POST occurred normally.


21

Refer to the exhibit. Which S1 switch port interface or interfaces should be configured with the ip dhcp snooping trust command if best practices are implemented?
only the G0/1 and G0/24 ports*
only unused ports
only the G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports
only the G0/1 port
only the G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports
22
Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface?​
show interfaces
show processes
show running-config
show controllers*

23
What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command have on an Ethernet interface on a switch?
automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface
automatically detects duplex settings
automatically detects copper cable type*
automatically detects interface speed
24
Fill in the blank.
When port security is enabled, a switch port uses the default violation mode of    ”   shutdown  ”    until specifically configured to use a different violation mode.
If no violation mode is specified when port security is enabled on a switch port, then the security violation mode defaults to shutdown.

CCNA2 Chapter 1 Answer What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?

 Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA) Routing and Switching is a certification program for entry-level network engineers that helps maximize your investment in foundational networking knowledge and increase the value of your employer's network. CCNA Routing and Switching is for Network Specialists, Network Administrators, and Network Support Engineers with 1-3 years of experience. The CCNA Routing and Switching validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks
1
What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?
has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames
makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame
has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications​*
provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds
2
A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)
reduced cost for equipment and user training
less required equipment to provide the same performance levels
simpler deployment for additional switch equipment*
easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability*
lower bandwidth requirements
3
What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.)
availability of multiple ports for bandwidth aggregation
lower forwarding rates
need for fewer power outlets*
lower cost per switch
increased scalability*
4

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC1 asks the DHCP server for IPv4 addressing. The DHCP server sends it an IPv4 address. While PC2 is still booting up, PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?​
to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only​
to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4
to Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 only
to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only*
to Fa0/1 only​
5
What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?
forwards data based on logical addressing
learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address*
6

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
There are ” 12 ” collision domains in the topology.​
7
What is a collapsed core in a network design?
a combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers
a combination of the functionality of the access and core layers
a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers*
a combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers
8
What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
to enhance user bandwidth*
to eliminate virtual circuits
to create more broadcast domains
to isolate traffic between segments*
to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network
to create fewer collision domains
9

Refer to the exhibit.
How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?
SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.*
SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.
10

Place the options in the following order:
[+] appropriate for high performance computing applications
[+] forwarding process can begin after receiving the destination address
[+] may forward invalid frames
[#] error checking before forwarding
[#] forwarding process only begin after receiving the entire frame
[#] only forward valid frames
[+] Order does not matter within this group.
[#] Order does not matter within this group.
11
What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture distribution layer?
aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries*
aggregating all the campus blocks
acting as a backbone
providing access to the user
12
ABC, Inc. has about fifty hosts in one LAN. The administrator would like to increase the throughput of that LAN. Which device will increase the number of collision domains and thereby increase the throughput of the LAN?
hub
host
NIC
switch*
13
What does the term “port density” represent for an Ethernet switch?
the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port
the speed of each port
the memory space that is allocated to each switch port
the number of available ports*
14
Which type of transmission does a switch use when the destination MAC address is not contained in the MAC address table?
anycast
unicast
broadcast*
multicast
15
What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?
aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries
provides high availability
aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains
provides access to the user*
16
What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?
source MAC address and incoming port number*
destination MAC address and incoming port number
destination IP address and incoming port number
source IP address and incoming port number
17
Fill in the blank.
A     “converged”     network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.
18
An administrator purchases new Cisco switches that have a feature called StackPower. What is the purpose of this feature?
It enables many switches to be connected with a special fiber-optic power cable to provide higher bandwidth.
It enables the sharing of power among multiple stackable switches.*
It enables many switches to be connected to increase port density.
It enables many switches to be physically stacked in an equipment rack.
It enables AC power for a switch to be provided from a powered patch panel.
19
Which switch form factor should be used when large port density, fault tolerance, and low price are important factors?
fixed-configuration switch
modular switch
stackable switch*
rackable 1U switch
20

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
There are     ”  5  ”   broadcast domains in the topology.​

ccna1 chapter 10 answer

1
Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
physical layer
session layer*
transport layer
application layer*
presentation layer*
data link layer
2
Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)
compression*
addressing
encryption*
session control
authentication
3
Select three protocols that operate at the Application Layer of the OSI model. (Choose three.)
ARP
TCP
DSL
FTP*
POP3*
DHCP*
4
A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
FTP*
HTTP*
DNS
SNMP
DHCP
SMTP*
5
What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
scalable
one way data flow
decentralized resources*
centralized user accounts
resource sharing without a dedicated server*
6
What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?
A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.
A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.
A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.*
7
What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
Messages are kept in the mail servers until the client manually deletes them.*
When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.
8
Which two actions are taken by SMTP if the destination email server is busy when email messages are sent? (Choose two.)
SMTP sends an error message back to the sender and closes the connection.
SMTP tries to send the messages at a later time.*
SMTP will discard the message if it is still not delivered after a predetermined expiration time.
SMTP periodically checks the queue for messages and attempts to send them again.*
SMTP sends the messages to another mail server for delivery.
9
Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?
DNS
DHCP
SMTP
HTTP*
POP3
10
A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER*
DHCPACK
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST*
DHCPNAK
11
A user accessed the game site www.nogamename.com last week. The night before the user accesses the game site again, the site administrator changes the site IP address. What will be the consequence of that action for the user?
The user will not be able to access the site.
The user will access the site without problems.*
The user will have to modify the DNS server address on the local PC in order to access the site.
The user will have to issue a ping to this new IP address to be sure that the domain name remained the same.
12
Which DNS server in the DNS hierarchy would be considered authoritative for the domain name records of a company named netacad?
.com
netacad.com*
mx.netacad.com
www.netacad.com
13
Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.*
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
The message comes from a client seeking an IP address. *
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.*
Only the DHCP server receives the message.
14
Which phrase describes an FTP daemon?
a diagnostic FTP program
a program that is running on an FTP server*
a program that is running on an FTP client
an application that is used to request data from an FTP server
15
What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?
Different SMB message types have a different format.
Clients establish a long term connection to servers.*
SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.
16
When would it be more efficient to use SMB to transfer files instead of FTP?
when downloading large files with a variety of formats from different servers
when a peer-to-peer application is required
when the host devices on the network use the Windows operating system
when downloading large numbers of files from the same server*
when uploading the same file to multiple remote servers
17
Fill in the blank.
What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web server?     “ HTTPS “​
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
is the protocol that is used for accessing or
posting web server information using a secure communication channel.
18

Fill in the blank.
Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve  a given host name by querying the name servers?   “ nslookup
A user can manually query the name servers to resolve
a given host name using the nslookup command.​
Nslookup is both a command and a utility.​
19
Question as presented:

Place the options in the following order:
end device address
- not scored -
authoritative name server
canonical name
mail exchange record
20
Question as presented:

Place the options in the following order:
a message that is used to identify the explicit server and lease offer to accept
a message that is used to locate any available DHCP server on a network
- not scored -
a message that is used to suggest a lease to a client
a message that is used to acknowledge that the lease is successful
21
Question as presented:

Place the options in the following order:
[+] no dedicated server is required
[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis
[#] requires a specific user interface
[#] a background service is required
[+] Order does not matter within this group.
[#] Order does not matter within this group.
22
Open the PT Activity.


Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which PC or PCs are sending FTP packets to the server?
PC_3
PC_1
PC_2*
PC_1 and PC_3

23.
Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
AUX interface
Ethernet interface
serial interface
console interface

24 .
What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)
cable color code association
cable selection and configuration
use of cable testers to determine pinouts
the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs

25. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
hub
switch
bridge
router
repeater

Friday 28 March 2014

R1#sh ip route

R1#sh ip route
Codes: C - connected, S - static, I - IGRP, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP
       D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area
       N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2
       E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2, E - EGP
       i - IS-IS, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2, ia - IS-IS inter area
       * - candidate default, U - per-user static route, o - ODR
       P - periodic downloaded static route

Gateway of last resort is not set

C    192.168.1.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/2/0
     192.168.10.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
D       192.168.10.0/24 is a summary, 00:24:21, Null0
C       192.168.10.0/29 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
     192.168.11.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
D       192.168.11.0/24 is a summary, 00:24:21, Null0
C       192.168.11.16/28 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
D    192.168.20.0/24 [90/2172416] via 192.168.1.254, 00:20:24, Serial0/2/0
D    192.168.21.0/24 [90/2172416] via 192.168.1.254, 00:20:24, Serial0/2/0
D    192.168.23.0/24 [90/2172416] via 192.168.88.2, 00:01:52, Serial0/2/1
D    192.168.24.0/24 [90/2172416] via 192.168.88.2, 00:01:52, Serial0/2/1
     192.168.88.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
D       192.168.88.0/24 is a summary, 00:02:02, Null0
C       192.168.88.0/30 is directly connected, Serial0/2/1
D    192.168.99.0/24 [90/2681856] via 192.168.1.254, 00:20:00, Serial0/2/0
                     [90/2681856] via 192.168.88.2, 00:01:52, Serial0/2/1

Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)

random jitter
implementation of classful addressing
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes

a network converging too quickly

Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?

Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?


They will share all routes saved in NVRAM prior to the power loss with their directly connected neighbors.
They will multicast hello packets to all other routers in the network to establish neighbor adjacencie
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbor
They will broadcast their full routing table to all routers in the network

Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).

Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).


RIPv1
EIGRP
OSPF
IS-IS
RIPv2